A question about causation

Let's see if I have this down. When Chris points out in his Knowles interview that it can't be as simple as the past causing the future and that "the past and the future must cause EACH OTHER in a loop", is he saying that since the past refers to the future and since you can't refer to something that isn't real, the future's existence is not caused by the past since it has to be assumed to "already" exist? And also that since determinism doesn't work, and you must have freedom in the universe, the future must cause that which causes itself, and this is "meta-causation"?

2 comments